\lecture{09}{2023-11-14}{} \begin{theorem} Let $X$ be an uncountable Polish space. Then for all $\xi < \omega_1$, we have that $\Sigma^0_\xi(X) \neq \Pi^0_\xi(X)$. \end{theorem} \begin{proof} Fix $\xi < \omega_1$. Towards a contradiction assume $\Sigma^0_\xi(X) = \Pi^0_\xi(X)$. By \autoref{thm:cantoruniversal}, there is a $X$-universal set $\cU$ for $\Sigma^0_\xi(X)$. Take $A \coloneqq \{y \in X : (y,y) \not\in \cU\}$. Then $A \in \Pi^0_\xi(X)$.\todo{Needs a small proof} By assumption $A \in \Sigma^0_\xi(X)$, i.e.~there exists some $z \in X$ such that $A = \cU_z$. We have \[z \in A \iff z \in \cU_z \iff (z,z) \in \cU.\] But by the definition of $A$, we have $z \in A \iff (z,z) \not\in \cU \lightning$. \end{proof} \begin{definition} Let $X$ be a Polish space. A set $A \subseteq X$ is called \vocab{analytic} if \[ \exists Y \text{ Polish}.~\exists B \in \cB(Y).~ \exists \underbrace{f\colon Y \to X}_{\text{continuous}}.~ f(B) = A. \] \end{definition} Trivially, every Borel set is analytic. We will see that not every analytic set is Borel. \begin{remark} In the definition we can replace the assertion that $f$ is continuous by the weaker assertion of $f$ being Borel. \todo{Copy exercise from sheet 5} \end{remark} \begin{theorem} Let $X$ be Polish, $\emptyset \neq A \subseteq X$. Then the following are equivalent: \begin{enumerate}[(i)] \item $A$ is analytic. \item There exists a Polish space $Y$ and $f\colon Y \to X$ continuous\footnote{or Borel} such that $A = f(Y)$. \item There exists $h\colon \cN \to X$ continuous with $h(\cN) = A$. \item There is $F \overset{\text{closed}}{\subseteq} X \times \cN$ such that $A = \proj_X(F)$. \item There is a Borel set $B \subseteq X \times Y$ for some Polish space $Y$, such that $A = \proj_X(B)$. \end{enumerate} \end{theorem} \begin{proof} To show (i) $\implies$ (ii): take $B \in \cB(Y')$ and $f\colon Y' \to X$ continuous with $f(B) = A$. Take a finer Polish topology $\cT$ on $Y'$ adding no Borel sets, such that $B$ is clopen with respect to the new topology. Then let $g = f\defon{B}$ and $Y = (B, \cT\defon{B})$. (ii) $\implies$ (iii): Any Polish space is the continuous image of $\cN$. Let $g_1: \cN \to Y$ and $h \coloneqq g \circ g_1$. (iii) $\implies$ (iv): Let $h\colon \cN \to X$ with $h(\cN) = A$. Let $G(h) \coloneqq \{(a,b) : h(a) = b\} \overset{\text{closed}}{\subseteq} \cN \times X$ be the \vocab{graph} of $h$. Take $F \coloneqq G(h)^{-1} \coloneqq \{(c,d) | (d,c) \in G(h)\}$ Clearly (iv) $\implies$ (v). (v) $\implies$ (i): Take $f \coloneqq \proj_X$. \end{proof} \begin{theorem} Let $X,Y$ be Polish spaces. Let $f\colon X \to Y$ be \vocab{Borel} (i.e.~preimages of open sets are Borel). \begin{enumerate}[(a)] \item The image of an analytic set is analytic. \item The preimage of an analytic set is analytic. \item Analytic sets are closed under countable unions and countable intersections. \end{enumerate} \end{theorem} \begin{proof} \begin{enumerate}[(a)] \item Let $A \subseteq X$ analytic. Then there exists $Z$ Polish and $g\colon Z \to X$ continuous with $g(Z) = A$. We have that $f(A) = (f \circ g)(Z)$ and $f \circ g$ is Borel. \item Let $f\colon X \to Y$ be Borel and $B \subseteq Y$ analytic. Take $Z$ Polish and $B_0 \subseteq Y \times Z$ such that $\proj_Y(B_0) = B$. Take $f^+\colon X \times Z \to Y \times Z, f^+ = f \times \id$. Then \[f^{-1}(B) = \underbrace{\proj_X(\overbrace{(\underbrace{f^+}_{\mathclap{\text{Borel}}})^{-1}(\underbrace{B_0}_{\mathclap{\text{Borel}}})}^{\text{Borel}})}_{\text{analytic}}.\] \item \todo{Exercise} \end{enumerate} \end{proof} \begin{notation} Let $X$ be Polish. Let $\Sigma^1_1(X)$ denote the set of all analytic subsets of $X$. $\Pi^1_1(X) \coloneqq \{B \subseteq X : X \setminus B \in \Sigma^1_1(X)\}$ is the set of \vocab{coanalytic} sets. \end{notation} We will see later that $\Sigma^1_1(X) \cap \Pi^1_1(X) = \cB(X)$. \begin{theorem} Let $X,Y$ be uncountable Polish spaces. There exists a $Y$-universal $\Sigma^1_1(X)$ set. \end{theorem} \begin{proof} Take $\cU \subseteq Y \times X \times \cN$ which is $Y$-universal for $\Pi^0_1(X \times \cN)$. Let $\cV \coloneqq \proj_{Y \times Y}(\cU)$. Then $\cV$ is $Y$-universal for $\Sigma^1_1(X)$: \begin{itemize} \item $\cV \in \Sigma^1_1(Y \times X)$ since $\cV$ is a projection of a closed set. \item All sections of $\cV$ are analytic. Let $A \in \Sigma^1_1(X)$. Let $C \subseteq X \times \cN$ be closed such that $\proj_X(C) = A$. There is $y \in Y$ such that $\cU_y = C$, hence $\cV_y = A$. \end{itemize} \end{proof} \begin{remark} In the same way that we proved $\Sigma^0_\xi(X) \neq \Pi^0_\xi(X)$ for $\xi < \omega_1$, we obtain that $\Sigma^1_1(X) \neq \Pi^1_1(X)$. In fact if $\cU$ is universal for $\Sigma^1_1(X)$, then $\{y : (y,y) \in \cU\} \in \Sigma^1_1(X) \setminus \Pi^1_1(X)$. In particular, this set is not Borel. \end{remark} \begin{remark}+ Showing that there exist sets that don't have the Baire property requires the axiom of choice.\todo{Copy exercise from sheet 5} \end{remark}